答案及中文翻譯在另一篇文章中

1. What is the charge of Phosphate?

a. polar

b. neutral

c. negative

d. positive

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2. How is transcription of the Lac Operon turned on?

a. add IPTG, and the protein LacO binds lactose and falls off the DNA

b. add IPTG, and the protein LacI binds lactose and falls off the DNA

c. add IPTG, and the protein LacO binds lactose binds to the DNA

d. add IPTG, and the protein LacI binds lactose and binds to the DNA

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3. Polycistronic transcription of an operon is when:?

a. RNA polymerase transcribes multiple ORFs in a single mRNA molecule (5’ to 3’)?

b. RNA polymerase transcribes a single ORF from 5’ to 3’ including introns and exons??

c. DNA polymerase replicates DNA in a particular region?

d. A methylase methylates a DNA sequence?

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4. If two homologous operons are syntenic and you looked at their genes in two different bacteria:?

a. transcription factors would match both promoters

b. DnaA will bind to both their promoters

c. the order of genes will be the same?

d. DNA pol will bind to both their origins?

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5. TAQ dna dependent dna polymerase has an error rate of:?

a. 1/10

b. 1/1,000?

c. 1/10,000

d. 1/100,000?

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6. Two positively charged amino acids are:?

a. D and E?

b. C and S?

c. M and A?

d. R and K?

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7. Two amino acids with Sulfer (S) are:?

a. D and E?

b. C and M?

c. R and K?

d. L and Q

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8. Reverse Genetics is:

a. When you combine FISH and western blots

b. When you compare genomes

c. When you break genes and observe their phenotype?

d. When you insert transgenes

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9. A 2-micron yeast plasmid has ~________________ copies per cell??

a. 1.?

b. 1-3?

c. 60?

d. 600?

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10. In bacteria, an inducible origin plasmid probably has how many copies per cell without the inducer chemical.

a. ~1?

b. ~100?

c. ~600?

d. ~10,000?

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11. The top band on an agarose gel of “un-digested” (not digested) plasmid is:?

a. supercoiled plasmid?

b. concatenated rings?

c. linear plasmid?

d. single circular plasmid?

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12. in a plasmid, which element contains the most restriction enzyme sites:

a. origin

b. selectable marker

c. inducible promoter

d. M.C.S.

e. auxotrophic marker

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13. You can integrate a gene into a bacterial chromosome by:

a. transforming a plasmid

b. jumping transposons

c. PCR restriction enzyme cloning

d. RT-PCR restriction enzyme cloning

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14. How can you remove hairpins in a PCR primer?

a. add more Mg2+in your buffer

b. decrease the annealing temperature

c. use a “hot-start” PCR

d. change your polymerase to a H.F. polymerase

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15. A “suicide” plasmid is:

a. a plasmid without an antibiotic resistance gene

b. a plasmid without a MCS

c. a plasmid without an origin

d. a plasmid without a promoter

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16. The reagent in Sanger sequencing that terminates elongation of DNA is:

a. dntp’s

b. ddntp’s

c. dndp’s

d. a and b

e. a and c

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17. the “backbone” of DNA is made of:

a. purines

b. pyrimidines

c. both a and b

d. phosphate

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18. in order to make cas9 edit eukaryotic genomes what was added?

a. inducible promoter

b. T4SS

c. NLS

d. ParA

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19. In the Gal1 promoter:

a. (+) adding galactose turns the gene On

b. (+) adding glucose turns the gene On

c. (+) adding Methionine turns the gene On

d. (+) adding lactose turns the gene On

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20. The valence of Oxygen is:

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

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21. The direction of mRNA can be described as:

a. 5’-3’

b. 3’-5’

c. 4’-3’

d. both a and b

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22. During DNA replication in the cell, the lagging strand has:

a. Okazaki fragments

b. RNA pol

c. sigma factors

d. Ribosomes

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23. In a western blot, the role of the secondary antibody is to:

a. bind the protein of interest

b. amplify the signal

c. block non-specific proteins

d. detect FLAG epitopes

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24. Choose the easiest method to determine presence/absence of a symbiont:

a. GFP tag

b. FISH

c. western blot

d. PCR

25. In the Met25 promoter:

a. (+) methionine turns the gene On

b. (+) methionine turns the gene OFF

c. (+) galactose turns the gene On

d. (+) galactose turns the gene OFF

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26. After restriction enzyme digest of a plasmid with an enzyme that cuts at 2 locations, you will observe how many bands on an agarose gel?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

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27. The role of ligase is to __________ .

a. seal a phosphodiester bond;

b. turn on the ara operon;

c. Add dntp’s to a new strand of DNA;

d. cut non-methlyated DNA;

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28. You will find a TATA box _________________ of the ORF and the promoter ________________ of the ORF?

a. downstream 3’; upstream 5’?

b. upstream 3’; downstream 4’?

c. downstream 5’; upstream 3’?

d. upstream 5’; downstream 3’?

e. upstream 5’; upstream 5’

f. downstream 3’; downstream 3’

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29. Why don’t prokaryotes “package” DNA with histones?

a. to recruit DnaA

b. to “streamline” the DNA

c. because eukaryotic genomes don’t fit inside the nucleus

d. both a and c

e. because prokaryotes don’t have much DNA and they want fast transcription.

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30. What would be a good experiment to see localization of mRNA in a cell?

a. illumina next-generation sequencing

b. immuno-fluorescence

c. F.I.S.H.

d. agarose gel

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31. In RT-PCR, we use “Reverse Transcriptase” to synthesize:

a. DNA

b. dsRNA

c. mRNA

d. cDNA

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32. We want to inactivate an enzyme’s catalytic site. We will mutate the active Cysteine residue inside to which amino acid? Choose the best option:

a. cysteine

b. alanine

c. methionine

d. glutamic acid

e. proline

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33. The evolutionary purpose of restriction enzymes in bacteria is to:

a. clone genes with restriction enzyme cloning

b. promote homologous recombination

c. protect the cell from virus invasions

d. they counteract CRISPRcas9 system

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34. The bases of RNA are:

a. ATGC

b. Alanine, Guanine, Cytosine, Thymine

c. AUGC

d. Alanine, Uracil, Glycine, Cysteine

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35. A and T bases bind each other with ________ hydrogen bonds?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

36. Which amino acid is this??

a. alanine

b. glycine

c. valine

d. lysine

e. tryptophan

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37. To select for a yeast plasmid with Auxotrophic selection I could use a:

a. Ampr resistance cassette.

b. Kanr resistance cassette with histidine out of the media.

c. ΔHis3 genotype with a His3 gene in a plasmid, with histidine drop out media.

d. His3 geneotype with a ΔHis3 gene in a plasmid, with histidine in the media.

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38. The four main types of biological molecules are:

a. N, C, O, H atoms

b. dntp’s, amino acids, rntp’s, and codons

c. Amino Acids, proteins, lipids, nucleic acids

d. Lipids, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, proteins

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39. Conjugation utilizes:

a. Tra genes.

b. transposons

c. homologous recombination

d. bacteria pick up environmental plasmids

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40. Purifying selection is when?

a. when you run a miniprep to purify a plasmid

b. when you purify a protein

c. a gene does not change because any mutation will kill the organism

d. when a gene mutates and changes under selective pressure

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41. Origin incompatibility is when:

a. plasmid origins compete for replication

b. when plasmids become concatenated

c. when plasmids become supercoiled

d. when plasmids mutate

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42. Immuno-fluorescence will tell you:

a. The localization of a protein in dead cells

b. The localization of a protein in live cells

c. The localization of nucleic acids in live cells

d. The localization of nucleic acids in dead cells

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43. You want to design primers for a microbe, but you don’t have that microbe’s genome. What should you do?

a. Design primers in conserved regions of a gene from a distantly related organism

b. Design primers in conserved regions of a gene from a closely related organism

c. It’s impossible

d. Design primers in a non-conserved gene of a relative

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44. You clone a gene into a plasmid and you want to confirm that it’s there. The easiest test is to run a:

a. illumina Seq

b. gel mobility shift assay on an agarose gel

c. western-blot

d. RNA-Seq

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45. How do we know that mitochondria are related to alpha-proteobacteria?

a. comparative genomics (BLAST) indicate they are related because of homology

b. western blots indicate they are related

c. FISH indicates they are related

d. A simple PCR test proves this

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46. Given this plasmid, what is the name of the terminator?

a. T7

b. NheI

c. CYC1

d. pUC

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47. Given the plasmid above, digestion with which restriction enzymes would cut out most of the Auxotrophic selection marker?

a. SnaBI and HindIII

b. KpnI and XbaI

c. EcoRI and BglI

d. NheI and ApaI

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48. Given that pRSXX4 means Trp1, and pRSXX5 means Leu2, and pRSXX6 means Ura3, what should you leave out of the media to select for plasmid pRS416Gal1?

a. Tryptophan

b. deltaTrp1

c. uracil

d. deltaUra3

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49. Transposons were discovered by Barbara McClintock when she observed that:

a. color change in human eye color was due to jumping genes

b. fruit fly wing mutants was due to jumping genes

c. kernel color of Indian corn was due to jumping genes.

d. Long vs short hair was due to jumping genes.

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50. You want to clone and study a DNAse gene that is toxic to E.coli. What might help you accomplish this goal:

a. a high copy plasmid

b. an inducible origin plasmid

c. a Strong constitutive promoter

d. a weak constitutive Promoter